PPC/OMM Block 6 Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• If a patient has pelvic/abdominal trauma and reduced use of their body below the diaphragm, what are some effects that might be seen?
• After warming, drying, and stimulating the newborn, what should you do next?
• Cryptorchidism refers to:
• What should you do if a patient withdraws consent at any point?
• Which hormones promote growth of ovarian follicles and production of estradiol in females?
• Which of the following factors affect the onset of menarche?
• Which diagnosis is most likely with hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, and hypoglycemia?
• Which statement correctly differentiates indirect inguinal hernias from direct inguinal hernias?
• What is the window of opportunity in pregnancy OMM?
• Which ethnicity-related statement correctly reflects prostate cancer risk?
• If a negative seated flexion test is accompanied by shallow sacral bases and shallow ILAs, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which is an individual risk factor for being personally affected by intimate partner violence?
• In early adolescence (SMR 1-2), what is the main psychosocial focus?
• What is a commonly observed somatic change after pregnancy that may persist postpartum?
• Condyloma lata is characterized by which description?
• How would an ectopic pregnancy be documented in G/P history?
• A patient with severe hypertension, anxiety, and palpitations has elevated urinary catecholamines. What is the diagnosis?
• In SMR stage 4, testes are approximately how many milliliters?
• The anterior Chapman point for the adrenal glands is located relative to the umbilicus how?
• Which shunt bypasses the liver in fetal circulation?
• Spray and stretch therapy uses which agent?
• If a seated flexion test is positive on the right and the patient has an oblique axis dysfunction/torsion, what is the location of the axis relative to the dysfunction?
• In trigger point therapy, what does ME stand for?
• During the pre-pubertal stage, which pattern describes LH and FSH release?
• Indirect inguinal hernias descend through which structure or relation?
• The anterior Chapman point of the adrenal glands is located where?
• On physical examination, acanthosis nigricans is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which tests can be used to confirm torsional diagnoses?
• Secondary diabetes mellitus is attributed to other causes such as chronic steroids use or pancreatic diseases like cystic fibrosis.
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the prostate and broad ligament located?
• Hypospadias is characterized by:
• What happens when the baby takes its first breath and the umbilical cord is clamped?
• Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta?
• Which special tests are included in a male GU physical examination?
• What happens to the foramen ovale after the baby's first breath?
• Gonadarche refers to the onset of pubertal function of the gonads, which leads to what outcome?
• What is the normal age range for onset of puberty in females?
• Which is a risk factor for unintended pregnancy?
• Which physiologic change triggers the closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth?
• Which plantar surface sign indicates cuboid dysfunction?
• In the congenital heart screen, pulse oximetry compares oxygen saturation between which locations?
• If you have an anterior torsion, what do you expect for a sphinx and spring test?
• Which OMT is recommended after cesarean section?
• Regarding physiologic changes in pregnancy, which description reflects the change in total body water reported by Dr. Fabry?
• What movement does the sacrum undergo during delivery to help push the baby out?
• If the baby's heart rate is less than 100 after the previous steps, what should you do?
• Which manual therapy is cited for meralgia paresthetica by Dr. Fabry?
• Non-proliferative retinopathy cannot progress to proliferative retinopathy. Is this statement true or false?
• Which statement is true about a sacral torsion that is labeled 'Right on Left'?
• During foot supination, the fibular head moves in which direction?
• At SMR stage 2, what is the expected testicular volume?
• In neonatal gynecomastia, some infants may also present with which finding?
• Which statement best describes type 2 diabetes?
• What is important to begin with to perform a thorough scrotal exam?
• What is the structural stage of pregnancy for 0-28 weeks?
• The parasympathetic innervation to the lower ureters and bladder comes from which spinal levels?
• Should you consider using a chaperone, and when might this be appropriate?
• Which three movements comprise foot pronation?
• If the sacrum is in flexion, what is the lumbar spine doing?
• During the second trimester, which multifactored approach is indicated for maternal comfort and improvement in hypertension and preeclampsia?
• Which of the following correctly defines latent MTrPs?
• A diabetic patient reports weight loss. Are they more likely to have Type 1 diabetes or Type 2 diabetes?
• Which set of movements describes foot supination?
• In a young, otherwise healthy female presenting with low back pain and normal imaging, what is a very likely cause?
• What happens to FSH and LH production during mid-puberty?
• What is the average age of menarche, and by what age would absence be considered primary amenorrhea?
• During posterior fibular head HVLA, how should the pinky toe be moved relative to the fibular head?
• During a diabetic foot exam, which finding is commonly inspected for on visual inspection?
• The anterior Chapman point for the kidneys is located where?
• Which statement best describes the physiologic barrier?
• Skeletal maturation is a better indicator for which aspect of age?
• Which statement best describes the use of indirect MFR techniques in trauma cases?
• The posterior Chapman point for the ovaries/testes is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• The bladder's posterior Chapman point is located at which reference?
• Which sign is most specific for Graves disease?
• When might written consent be required for OMM?
• Penile carcinoma is usually associated with which infection?
• The mnemonic Bones, Stones, Moans, Psych overtones refers to which disorder?
• Which step is part of posterior tibia HVLA?
• Where is the cuboid bone located in the foot?
• Epidermoid cysts on the scrotum are typically:
• What does PPV stand for in neonatal resuscitation?
• Thelarche is defined as the onset of what?
• What is the best description of type 2 diabetes?
• Tender points can be found in which tissues?
• If a patient who consented to OMM becomes tense or visibly uncomfortable, you should
• What is the basic mechanism by which diabetes causes changes to the eye?
• Where is a syphilitic chancre commonly found?
• Direct inguinal hernias protrude through which region?
• If the lumbar spine is in flexion, what is the sacrum doing?
• For cuboid dysfunction HVLA, where is the thrust directed?
• Which statement correctly describes HVLA approach when a patient tends to supinate the arm?
• In a case where a seated flexion test is positive on the right and on the dysfunctional side the sacral base is shallow and the ILA is deep, what is the diagnosis?
• During pronation of the foot, the fibular head moves in which direction?
• The phrase 'absence of no does not mean yes' emphasizes which idea about consent?
• Which retinal finding is a sign of neovascularization?
• In managing premenstrual syndrome with osteopathic manipulative treatment, which approach is recommended?
• If a seated flexion test is positive on the right and the sacral base is shallow with the ILA also shallow on the dysfunctional side, what is the diagnosis?
• If you have a posterior torsion, what do you expect for a sphinx and spring test?
• Which action is listed as a ventilation corrective step?
• Which statement differentiates caput succedaneum from cephalhematoma?
• Which statement best describes pubertal gynecomastia?
• Which statement about consent integrity is true?
• Which statement about APGAR scoring repetition is true?
• Which change is characteristic of SMR stage 2?
• Which sequence best describes the order of female pubertal development?
• Reduced lymphatic flow due to pelvic/abdominal trauma can lead to which of the following problems?
• Which percentage is included in the rule of 10s for pheochromocytomas?
• What is the effect of increased parasympathetic tone on ureteral peristalsis?
• During early pregnancy, what is a key objective of the structural assessment?
• During the vibration perception test, what should the patient report?
• A sacral torsion described as 'Right on Left' involves rotation to the right on which axis?
• True gynecomastia is defined by the presence of glandular breast tissue.
• Trousseau sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff and indicates which electrolyte abnormality?
• Increased sympathetic tone on the cervix causes which effect?
• What happens to the radial head when the forearm is pronated?
• A seated flexion test is negative; the sacral bases are both deep; the ILAs are both shallow. What is the diagnosis?
• Which pattern describes sacral dysfunctions on a horizontal axis?
• Colon cancer screening is end-dated at what age due to risk of colonic perforation?
• A sacral dysfunction that is a unilateral shear is categorized as physiological or non-physiological?
• What are the two types of retinopathy that can be seen in diabetes?
• How long should you deliver effective PPV before moving on to other interventions?
• Which of the following is an OMM technique used for dysmenorrhea?
• What does the anterior drawer test for the ankle assess?
• Which set correctly lists the five APGAR components?
• What are the two types of unintended pregnancies?
• For a patient who appears to prefer supination of the arm, how should HVLA be applied to treat the radial head?
• Which description best characterizes an active myofascial trigger point (MTrP)?
• Penile carcinoma is most likely to occur in which setting and is often associated with which infection?
• During eversion of the foot, the fibular head moves closer to which toe?
• What type of injury usually leads to dropped cuneiforms/navicular/cuboid?
• Sympathetic level for the gonads.
• What is an important counseling point for parents of a newborn with breast enlargement?
• Which statement about femoral hernias is true?
• Which of the following is listed as a PMS management approach with OMT?
• What is the recommended sequence for suctioning if necessary?
• Parasympathetic innervation to the lower ureters is provided by which spinal levels?
• Which two organs share the same parasympathetic levels (S2-4 pelvic splanchnic)?
• Which of the following is an effect of increased sympathetic tone on the uterus?
• A seated flexion test is negative; the sacral bases are both deep; the ILAs are both deep. What is the diagnosis?
• In the LVHA carpal bone squeeze, what is the primary biomechanical effect on the carpal bones?
• Regarding pediatric pelvic examinations, when are they typically performed under sedation?
• Which of the following describes genital ulcers caused by herpes simplex virus in males?
• A patient with somatic dysfunction of the arm is most likely to report which symptom?
• Which physical finding is commonly seen in hyperthyroidism during an examination?
• A syphilitic chancre is best described as which of the following?
• A sacral dysfunction on an oblique axis is considered physiological or non-physiological?
• Pain from the iliolumbar ligament can be referred to which area on the same side?
• Which combination represents known risk factors for prostate cancer?
• A patient is found to have corneal arcus on PE. What is the likely diagnosis?
• Immediately after birth, what happens to pulmonary vascular resistance and how does it affect the ductus arteriosus?
• Hyperreflexia on examination is most consistent with which condition?
• Which description matches the genital ulcers seen in herpes simplex infection?
• When initiating chest compressions, which airway management step is recommended?
• When is a pelvic exam indicated?
• According to ACOG guidelines, when should mammogram screening begin and how long should it continue?
• If L5 is side bent right, where is the axis of the sacrum?
• Adrenarche refers to which phenomenon?
• During which SMR stage is masculinization observed and the growth spurt occurs?
• What is a common male GU symptom?
• Parasympathetic level of the kidneys.
• Parasympathetic level for the lower ureters.
• What A1C level is diagnostic for diabetes?
• The posterior Chapman point of the bladder is located at which reference?
• What is an indication for a clinical breast exam?
• What does the talotibial joint swing test assess?
• According to the rule of 10s, what percentage of pheochromocytomas are familial?
• Which screenings should you confirm are up to date for an adult male?
• The posterior Chapman point for the adrenal glands is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral levels?
• Pseudogynecomastia is best described as
• Newborn screening is drawn after at least how many hours of life?
• Relaxin release peak during pregnancy occurs at which weeks?
• Which approach best describes treating meralgia paresthetica according to the notes?
• A patient reports bone pain, kidney stones, abdominal pain, and depressed mood. Which endocrine disorder best explains this constellation?
• What do increased FSH and LH cause in the gonads during puberty?
• What is the effect of increased parasympathetic tone on the bladder?
• When the seated flexion test is positive on the left, which side is dysfunctional?
• Neonatal gynecomastia is usually transient due to exposure to which hormone, and when does it typically resolve?
• Pubertal gynecomastia is commonly caused by what mechanism?
• Which statement describes SMR stage 5 in male development?
• Which of the following is NOT a TPAL category?
• In APGAR, what does the 'Appearance' component evaluate?
• What OMM position may be best for a patient who has history of trauma?
• Why is routine suctioning not performed during newborn resuscitation according to the material?
• What finding defines proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
• After 30 seconds of PPV, if heart rate is greater than 60 but less than 100, what should you do?
• Which statement describes Tanner pubic hair stage 4 in females?
• After labor and delivery, which somatic dysfunctions should be evaluated?
• Pretibial myxedema is most closely associated with which thyroid disorder?
• Which screening is required before discharge for a baby?
• Which statement best defines sexual assault or rape?
• Which condition is commonly described as a painless scrotal swelling that can cause infertility?
• Which statement is true regarding seated flexion testing?
• What is considered the standard of care in OMM consent?
• When should a chaperone ALWAYS be present for OMM?
• What is the typical feel of a normal prostate on digital rectal examination?
• How can hyperemesis be treated with OMM?
• A patient presents with non-pitting edema on physical examination. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which statement best describes musculoskeletal changes in pregnancy, particularly around the transition zone T8-T11?
• What is the approximate timeline between thelarche and menarche?
• Peyronie disease is characterized by:
• Under which conditions is skin-to-skin bonding with the mother recommended at birth?
• Enlarged thyroid observed on examination is most consistent with which condition?
• On the APGAR score, how many points can be awarded for each criterion?
• Which statement best describes a varicocele?
• At what age should all women have a DEXA screening at least once?
• Which finding supports cuboid dysfunction?
• Hard exudates on the retina are most commonly centered around which area?
• What are the sympathetic levels of the upper ureters?
• Parasympathetic level for the bladder.
• HVLA in somatic dysfunction targets which barrier type?
• Which statement about nephrolithiasis differences between sexes is true?
• In a posterior torsion sacral dysfunction, which axis is typically involved?
• What is the purpose of inspecting the scrotal skin during the exam?
• Gonadarche is best described as what?
• Which special test is commonly performed to assess for hernias as part of a male GU exam?
• A sacral dysfunction around a horizontal axis is classified as which of the following?
• What adjustment may be needed when performing a pelvic exam on an obese patient?
• Which of the following is a relationship factor for being personally affected by intimate partner violence?
• What should accompany fibular head HVLA to improve the likelihood of correction?
• When must consent be obtained for an OMM procedure?
• Which statement best describes proliferative retinopathy?
• Which set correctly lists the three questions used to determine immediate resuscitation needs?
• How can you tell if a patient is dissociating from their abdomen or pelvis during an OMM exam?
• SMR stage 1 for male sexual development is best described as
• What are the anticipated benefits of OMM?
• Which retinal finding is a sign of neovascularization?
• Secondary diabetes mellitus may be caused by which of the following?
• What has been the overall outcome of screening for intimate partner violence in patients?
• What is the first step in the carpal LVHA technique described for targeting the radiocarpal joint?
• What device is used to perform the vibration perception test in a diabetic foot exam?
• A patient with markedly enlarged jaw and hands and feet is most consistent with which condition?
• What does a red glow during transillumination of a swollen testicle indicate?
• Chvostek sign is produced by tapping the face and indicates which electrolyte abnormality?
• Which immunization is recommended before discharge for a newborn?
• In TPAL notation, what does the 'Term' category indicate?
• How often are colonoscopies performed for screening beyond initial recommendations?
• What should you palpate in a diabetic foot exam?
• What happens to the umbilical vein after the cord is clamped?
• Hard exudates are best described as?
• What is the effect of increased sympathetic tone on the kidneys and ureters?
• If a patient experiences significant pain during a pelvic examination, what is the recommended action?
• The anterior Chapman point of the bladder is located at which of the following?
• Intertrigo is noted on examination. How is this condition best described?
• Which statement describes Tanner breast stage 5?
• Which factor naturally opens the pelvic inlet in pregnancy?
• Which of the following patterns is described as bilateral in nature on a horizontal axis?
• What is the effect of increased sympathetic tone on the erectile tissue of the penis?
• Where is the posterior Chapman point for the uterus located?
• In TPAL notation, what does the 'Living' category indicate?
• According to the rule of 10s, what percentage of pheochromocytomas are bilateral?
• Pubarche refers to the onset of what?
• Which of the following statements correctly matches the treatments for trigger points and tender points?
• Which statement about herpes genital ulcers is true?
• A hydrocele is best described as:
• After starting chest compressions, how long should you wait before rechecking the infant's heart rate?
• When the elbow is abducted, what motion occurs at the wrist?
• The posterior Chapman point for the uterus is located between which landmarks?
• How are pediatric pelvic exams performed when required?
• During penile examination, what should you do if urethral symptoms are present?
• In what age range does menarche typically occur?
• What is important to remember when performing fibular head HVLA?
• What happens to the umbilical arteries when the cord is clamped?
• Counterstrain is primarily used to treat which type of points?
• Which statement undermines the validity of consent?
• Condyloma lata are best described as which of the following?
• APGAR scoring is performed at which times after birth and continues until the score exceeds 7?
• Sympathetic level for the prostate.
• Not part of the rule of 10s for pheochromocytomas?
• How does diabetic retinopathy typically progress?
• Exophthalmos observed on physical examination is most consistent with which condition?
• Which methods are used to confirm endotracheal tube placement during neonatal resuscitation?
• What does gravida describe in obstetric history?
• Which HVLA technique is described for cuboid dysfunction?
• The parasympathetic levels of the prostate are provided by which nerves?
• What happens to the ductus arteriosus after the baby's first breath?
• During a diabetic foot exam, how is protective pain sensation tested?
• If an initial DEXA screen is abnormal, how often should it be repeated?
• Which statement best describes the roles of LH and FSH in females versus males?
• At what age should colon cancer screening begin for women?
• Which pattern is consistent with bilateral extension?
• Lid lag or lid retraction is most consistent with which thyroid state?
• Which endocrine organ is commonly palpable during a routine physical examination?
• Which finding would you expect in proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
• At the end of childhood dormancy, which hormonal change starts puberty?
• Sympathetic level for the erectile tissue of the penis.
• A seated flexion test is positive on the right. On the dysfunctional side, the sacral base is deep and the ILA is shallow. What is the most likely sacral diagnosis?
• For an anterior fibular head dysfunction, which HVLA sequence best describes the approach?
• What is Dr. Fabry's typical approach to OMM in pregnant patients?
• The sympathetic level for the erectile tissue of the penis is the same as which structure?
• Which statement is NOT correct about the described Chapman points?
• Sympathetic level for the ovaries/testes.
• For a patient who appears to prefer pronation of the arm, how should HVLA be applied to treat the radial head?
• Parasympathetic level for the kidneys.
• If all three questions are yes, what should you do?
• Which statement describes Tanner breast stage 3?
• During full forearm supination, what happens to the radial head?
• Orchitis is best described as:
• What is the first sign of thelarche?
• What are the main components of a male GU physical exam?
• What is the underlying mechanism of type 1 diabetes?
• According to the rule of 10s, what percentage of pheochromocytomas occur in children?
• In mid adolescence (SMR 3-4), what is the main psychosocial focus?
• Which statement best describes a sports hernia?
• Soft exudates, also known as cotton wool spots, are associated with which pathology?
• Which statement about pain radiation upon palpation differentiates trigger points from tender points?
• Which sacral pattern is indicated by deep sacral bases with shallow ILAs?
• Which OMT technique is used to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia after cesarean section?
• Among patients with pelvic/abdominal trauma, what is a common subconscious physical effect?
• Cotton wool spots on fundus are most strongly associated with which condition?
• What is the effect of increased sympathetic tone on the bladder?
• What is meralgia paresthetica?
• Which sequence best describes steps of manual penile examination?
• If you fall backward and catch yourself with your hand, the radial head tends to become stuck in which direction?
• Which statement best describes the risk of not obtaining appropriate consent?
• The sympathetic levels of the adrenal medulla are which of the following?
• The posterior Chapman point for the kidneys is located between spinous process and transverse process of which vertebral region bilaterally?
• Which fetal vessel becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis (round ligament) in the adult liver?
• A patient presents with fruity breath and new nausea and abdominal pain. What condition should you suspect?
• Which statement describes a common genitourinary problem in pregnancy?
• Parasympathetic level for the upper ureters.
• Which testicle is typically lower?
• During mid-puberty, the pulsatile release of gonadotropins occurs at approximately what interval?
• For a posterior fibular head dysfunction, which HVLA steps are correct?
• Which chromosomal condition is associated with gynecomastia?
• Sympathetic level for the uterus/cervix.
• Pretibial myxedema observed on physical examination is most consistent with which condition?
• Increased parasympathetic tone on the cervix produces what change?
• In performing anterior talus HVLA, what is the thrust technique primarily described as?
• A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What condition should you suspect?
• Which statement describes SMR stage 4 in male development?
• Which dysfunction commonly occurs with cuboid dysfunction?
• Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to secrete testosterone?
• Which PSA change is concerning for malignancy?
• In the carpal whip HVLA, what is the primary purpose of maintaining traction?
• Which cells in the male respond to FSH to stimulate gametogenesis and gonadal growth?
• Which anomaly presents with a ventral urethral opening located on the glans, penile shaft, scrotum, or perineum?
• What is the first sign of male puberty?
• What is the first action when you have your baby at the warmer?
• Which symptoms best describe classic diabetes presentation?
• The parasympathetic levels of the uterus are provided by which nerves?
• Which adrenal androgen is predominantly produced when puberty begins?
• Where in the wrist can somatic dysfunctions occur?
• Xanthomas are most closely associated with which metabolic disturbance?
• A patient is found to have xanthelasmas on PE. What is the likely diagnosis?
• Which statement best differentiates type 1 diabetes from type 2 diabetes?
• Pearly penile papules are best described as:
• Counterstrain treatment for round ligament discomfort uses which segment and technique?
• Lid retraction or lid lag on physical examination is most consistent with which thyroid condition?
• Parasympathetic activation of the uterus results in which vascular change?
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the urethra located?
• Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menstruation by which benchmark?
• In puberty, which sex reaches peak growth velocity earlier and by how much?
• Condyloma acuminatum is an HPV-related lesion best described as:
• If L5 is rotated right, what is the sacrum doing?
• Which step is part of anterior tibia HVLA?
• What is the most common cause of hand and wrist pain in pregnancy?
• In a diabetic foot examination, which test uses a monofilament and tests four sites on each foot?
• What is considered an extremely important aspect of performing OMM procedures?
• Under what circumstance can DEXA screening be performed earlier than age 65?
• Fordyce's spots are:
• A unilateral shear extended sacral dysfunction shows which pattern on the dysfunctional side for sacral base and ILA?
• A patient is found to have xanthomas on PE. What is the likely diagnosis?
• Which populations may require special considerations for the hands-on touching aspect of OMM?
• Parasympathetic level for the ovaries/testes.
• Edema peaks in pregnancy during which weeks?
• What is the difference in locations between trigger points and tender points?
• If you fall forward and catch yourself with your hand, the radial head tends to become stuck in which direction?
• Soft exudates are also known as?
• For a mother who had preterm twins, a miscarriage at 14 weeks, carried one baby to full term, and is currently pregnant, what are her G's and P's (gravida and parity)?
• Which statement accurately describes oblique axis sacral dysfunction?
• Intertrigo is most accurately described as which of the following statements?
• What is included in consent for an OMM procedure?
• Which sequence describes the steps for a manual scrotal examination?
• What sensation may relaxin release cause in pregnancy?
• If a problem occurs after birth, which is more likely to be compromised in the newborn?
• In newborn pulse oximetry for congenital heart screening, pre-ductal measurement is typically taken from which location?
• Which organ has a posterior Chapman point located at the superior aspect of the transverse process of L2?
• What is the most common cause of cuboid dysfunction?
• The anterior Chapman point of the ovaries/testes is described as following which anatomical structure?
• For women aged 25 to 39, how often should a clinical breast exam be performed?
• PSA should be used in diagnosing prostate cancer as:
• Testicular torsion presents with:
• A round face with abdominal striae and a dorsocervical fat pad suggests which condition?
• What are the sympathetic levels for the kidneys?
• Which statement best describes type 1 diabetes?
• Which finding would suggest hypothyroidism rather than hyperthyroidism?
• The HVLA thrust for anterior tibia is directed in which direction?
• Which hormone is primarily responsible for bone maturation and epiphyseal closure?
• Which of the following is an effect of increased parasympathetic tone on the uterus?
• Which structures are palpated during a manual scrotal examination?
• Which statement about the sphinx test is true in sacral torsion assessment?
• Spermarche refers to which event?
• Which statement about femoral hernias is true?
• On fundoscopic exam, hard exudates most commonly indicate diabetes.
• Epispadias is characterized by:
• In SMR stage 3, which description applies to pubic hair?
• In a unilateral sacral shear, what side will the positive seated flexion test be on?
• How are Chapman's points diagnosed and treated?
• If you find xanthomas, xanthelasmas, or corneal arcus on exam, what lab should you order?
• Parasympathetic innervation to the ovaries and testes comes from which nerve(s)?
• Dropped cuneiforms/navicular/cuboid are most commonly associated with which mechanism?
• Ischemia of the superficial retinal nerve fiber layer leads to which finding?
• During puberty, there is a peak incidence of gynecomastia at approximately what age and Tanner stage?
• A seated flexion test is negative; the sacral bases are both shallow; the ILAs are both shallow. What is the diagnosis?
• What is the usual cause of hypoparathyroidism?
• Where do inguinal hernias descend in relation to the spermatic cord and testes?
• Which statement describes Tanner pubic hair stage 3?
• The sympathetic levels of the urinary bladder are typically:
• What does MTrP stand for in myofascial pain terminology?
• Which of the following is NOT a potential risk of OMM?
• A seated flexion test is positive on the right. The sacral base is deep, and the ILA on the dysfunctional side is deep. What is the most likely sacral diagnosis?
• If a TPAL notation reads 1010, what does each digit represent?
• Which procedures require a chaperone ALWAYS?
• Direct inguinal hernias are best described as:
• Besides colonoscopies done every 10 years, which tests are performed annually for colon cancer screening?
• Which HVLA technique is described for cuneiform dysfunction?
• Non-proliferative retinopathy is characterized by which features?
• The Ballard score is used to estimate gestational age by evaluating which aspects?
• What is important about positioning during OMM for a pregnant patient?
• Which spinal region may have pre-existing dysfunction that can impact circulation to the fetus?
• How should you order your OMM process in a patient with a sensitively located complaint?
• Flank pain in a male patient is most likely associated with which condition?
• If a problem begins in utero, which is more likely to be compromised in the fetus?
• Besides differences in treatment options, what is another reason to refer a patient elsewhere for OMM?
• What are the sympathetic levels of the lower ureters?
• In the flow of fetal circulation, which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus?
• What happens to the heart and lungs in male puberty?
• Which technique is NOT one of the listed OMM methods for dysmenorrhea?
• Which pathogen is associated with condyloma acuminatum?
• Peyronie disease is best described as:
• Which set of items is included in the HEADSS psychosocial assessment for adolescents?
• Where is the anterior Chapman point for the uterus located?
• A man presents with purulent penile discharge about a week after exposure. The most likely diagnosis is infection with which organism?
• At SMR stage 3, testes are typically how many milliliters?
• The anterior Chapman point for ovaries/testes is described as following which structure?
• What is acanthosis nigricans?
• What is the effect of increased parasympathetic tone on erection?
• What is an example of a home exercise that may help someone who dissociates from the abdomen/pelvis?
• What happens to the ductus venosus when the baby takes its first breath?
• Which self-help technique is described as helping decompress the pelvis for dysmenorrhea?
• For round ligament discomfort in pregnancy, which counterstrain point is associated with L5?
• To address upper thoracic and rib dysfunctions, which region should be treated?
• In performing the anterior drawer test, what position should the foot be in?
• What is the key to getting carpal bone HVLA (whip) to work?
• Ulnar abduction is defined by which carrying angle change?
• After 30 seconds of PPV, if heart rate is less than 60, what should you do?
• Ulnar adduction is defined by which carrying angle change?
• The posterior drawer test for the ankle identifies which condition?
• What constitutes contraindications to performing OMM during pregnancy?
• Where is the posterior Chapman point for the urethra located?
• If you are unsure of a patient’s religious or cultural needs regarding physical touch or skin exposure, what is the appropriate action?
• Spermarche occurs after the growth spurt and is associated with SMR stage
• Which technique is described for treating carpal tunnel using LVHA?
• After a normal breast exam, which messaging is appropriate?
• Where is the posterior Chapman point for the prostate and broad ligament located?
• Which condition is associated with gynecomastia unrelated to puberty?
• Left on left axis; a seated flexion test is negative; the sacral bases are both shallow and the ILAs are both deep. What is the diagnosis?
• Which patient populations may require special consent for OMM?
• Which of the following is one of the three questions asked to determine immediate need for resuscitation at birth?
• In late adolescence (SMR 5), main focus?
• Which anomaly presents with a dorsally located urethral opening?
• In TPAL notation, what does the 'Preterm' category indicate?
• When do male hormones peak production during the day compared with female hormones?
• Which statement is true about Dr. Fabry's use of HVLA in pregnant patients?
• During HVLA manipulation to fix a posterior talus, which is the initial patient position?
• How is scrotal transillumination performed?
• What is the definition of grand multiparous?
• Which sequence best describes the basic SMR timeline of male puberty?
• What is a good approach to ease into OMM treatment for patients with trauma?
• Which statement correctly describes HVLA approach when a patient tends to pronate the arm?
• The navicular bone articulates with which tarsal bones?
• If the baby is not improving as expected or there is no chest rise with PPV, which action is part of ventilation corrective steps?